2016NEW 350-080 EXAM] Cisco.CCIE Data Center Written Exam PART1 (1-20) VCE DUMPS FOR FREE DOWNLOAD WITH 100%PASS ENSURE

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NEW QUESTION 1 Refer to the exhibit. Assuming that all blades are equipped with Cisco UCS VIC 1280 adapters, which two statements can be confirmed from the output? (Choose two.)

A. The Cisco IOM model is a 2104XP.
B.The Cisco IOM model is a 2204XP.
C.The Cisco IOM model is a 2208XP.
D.Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are missing.
E.Blades 3, 4, 5, and 8 are not associated with a service profile.
F.Link Group Preference is set to Port Channel.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 2 In one-armed design, which method must be used to achieve symmetric load balancing in ACE?
A.Dual NAT
B.Round Robin
C.Dynamic Routing ProtocolD.
MAC Probe

Answer: A NEW

QUESTION 3 Refer to the exhibit. Which two statements about the diagram are true? (Choose two.)

A.Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC switching mode.
B.Cisco UCS Manager is set to FC end-host mode.
C.The topology is not supported.
D.The uplinks from each FI can carry multiple VSANs.
E.The uplinks from each FI can carry a single VSAN only.

Answer: BD

NEW QUESTION 4 Which three statements about Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect fiber channel end-host mode are true? (Choose three.)

A.The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect sends BPDUs northbound.
B.The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect never learns northbound dynamic MAC addresses.
C.The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns dynamic MAC addresses from direct attached storage fiber channel ports.
D.vNIC fabric failover is never available in end-host mode.
E.Link status changes on uplink ports are propagated to host vNICs.
F.The Cisco UCS Fabric Interconnect learns southbound dynamic MAC addresses.
G.vHBA fabric failover is enabled by default.

Answer: CEF

NEW QUESTION 5 What is the maximum combination of static vNICs and vHBAs for Cisco UCS Manager version 2.1 when using ESX 5.1?
A.18 eNICs and 8 fNICs
B.24 eNICs and 8 fNICs
C.12 eNICs and 8 fNICs
D.18 eNICs and 9 fNICs

Answer: A

NEW QUESTION 6 Which two actions must be done before configuring iSCSI boot for a server? (Choose two.)
A.The storage array must be licensed for iSCSI boot.
B.The operating system must be iBFT-compatible.
C.Zoning must be configured.
D.Boot parameters must be configured in the global group policy.
E.IP subnet of iSCSI initiator has to be in the same subnet as that of storage array.

Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 7  Refer to the exhibit. When you assign this disk policy to Server 1/1, it fails. Which option describes the reason for this failure?

A.The RAID controller does not support single disk configurations.
B.Only RAID0 and RAID1 are supported.
C.The server is equipped with a local disk.
D.Protection is enabled on the existing disk.

Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. Which two things can be determined from the SEL log output? (Choose two.)

A.The server experienced a crash.
B.The server experienced correctable memory errors.
C.DIMMs in channel 2 are experiencing memory errors.
D.DIMMs in channel 0 are experiencing memory errors.
E.Memory errors have crossed two thresholds.

Answer: BE

NEW QUESTION 9 Drag and Drop Question
Drag and drop the actions on the left to the correct order for a step-by-step FCIP link configuration on the right.

NEW QUESTION 10 Which three predictors are supported on ACE to select the best server to fulfill a client request? (Choose three.)
A.Hash Address, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source IP address, the destination IP address, or both
B.Hash URL, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the requested URL
C.Hash MAC, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the source MAC address, the destination MAC address, or both
D.Hash Header, which selects the server by using a hash value that is based on the HTTP header name
E.Highest bandwidth, selects the server that processed the highest amount of network traffic based on the average bandwidth that the server used over a specified number of samples
F.First Come First Server, always selects the first server in the list of real servers

Answer: ABD

QUESTION 11 Which three options are valid ACE health probes? (Choose three.)
A.SIP
B.ECHO
C.Finger
D.IPsec
E.TFTP
F.SSH
Answer: ABC

QUESTION 12 A load balancer can be defined as a network device that makes forwarding decisions that are based on parameters in Layers 4 to 7 of the OSI model. Which three parameters are involved in forwarding decisions? (Choose three.)
A.TCP Destination Port
B.DNS Record
C.HTTP Session Cookie
D.SNMP GET
E.String recognized in the connection data
F.Uniform Resource Locater
Answer: ACE 

QUESTION 13 Which switch is not a valid Cisco Nexus 7000 Series model?
A.Cisco Nexus 7000 4-slot switch
B.Cisco Nexus 7000 8-slot switch
C.Cisco Nexus 7000 9-slot switch
D.Cisco Nexus 7000 10-slot switch
E.Cisco Nexus 7000 18-slot switch
Answer: B 

QUESTION 14 What is the benefit of the Priority-Based Flow control feature in Data Center Bridging?
A.provides the capability to manage a bursty, single traffic source on a multiprotocol link
B.enables bandwidth management between traffic types for multiprotocol links
C.addresses the problem of sustained congestion by moving corrective action to the network edge
D.allows autoexchange of Ethernet parameters between switches and endpoints
Answer: A 

QUESTION 15 Your organization is purchasing Cisco devices as well as non-Cisco devices for switching.
Which three statements are correct about connecting Cisco devices to a non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud?

(Choose three.)
A.Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs to the SSTP multicast MAC address on VLANs other than the native VLAN of the trunk, non-Cisco devices do not recognize these frames as BPDUs and flood them on all ports in the corresponding VLAN.
B.Cisco devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud receive these flooded BPDUs. This BPDU reception allows Cisco switches to maintain a per-VLAN spanning tree topology across a cloud of non-Cisco 802.1Q devices.
C.The non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud that separates the Cisco devices is treated as a single broadcast segment between all devices connected to the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud through 802.1Q trunks.
D.Because Cisco devices transmit BPDUs using the industry standard IEEE 802.1D spanning tree multicast MAC address (01-80-C2-00-00-00), the non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud will seamlessly participate in spanning tree protocol.
E.Only layer 3 connections will work between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1 cloud.
F.Additional equipment will be needed to transmit traffic between Cisco devices and non-Cisco 802.1Q cloud direct connectivity is not possible
Answer: ABC 

QUESTION 16 Which two options describe devices as they operate in FabricPath topologies? (Choose two.)
A.Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a MAC address to the destination switch ID.
B.Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch exclusively based on the destination switch ID.
C.Edge (or leaf) devices: These devices have ports that are connected to classic Ethernet devices (servers, firewalls, router ports, and so on) and ports that are connected to the FabricPath cloud (or FabricPath ports). Edge devices are able to map a source address to the destination switch ID.
D.Spine devices: These devices exclusively interconnect edge devices. Spine devices switch exclusively based on the source switch ID.
Answer: AB

NEW QUESTION 17 Refer to the exhibit. The network topology that is shown in the exhibit has two aggregation switches (SW1 and SW2). The access layer switch connects to both aggregation switches.
On SW1 and SW2, ports connecting to the access layer switches are configured as vPC member ports. SW1 and SW2 are also connected using a port channel that is configured as a vPC peer link. Which statement describes the use of the vPC peer-keepalive link in this topology?

A.The peer-keepalive link is used for synchronizing MAC addresses between Agg1 and Agg2.
B.The peer-keepalive link is used for control plane traffic. The peer link is used for the data plane.
C.The peer-keepalive link is used to resolve dual-active scenarios, where the peer link connectivity is lost.
D.The peer-keepalive link is used for the communication of orphaned ports.
Answer: C

NEW QUESTION 18 In a FabricPath topology, each device is identified by a switch ID, and all Layer 2 forwarding tables are built based on the reachability of the switch ID. Which protocol is used to assign the switch ID?
A.No protocol is used. The switch ID is always assigned manually.
B.The Dynamic Resource Allocation Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
C.The Switch ID Assignment Protocol is used to assign the switch ID.
D.The switch ID is assigned based on the system ID of the device.
Answer: B

NEW QUESTION 19
Which three options describe the interface and direction on which ACL capture can be applied on

a Cisco Nexus 7000 switch? (Choose three.)
A.on a VLAN interface
B.in the ingress direction on all interfaces
C.in the ingress direction only on the M2 module
D.in the egress direction on all interfaces
E.in the egress direction on all Layer 3 interfaces
F.in the ingress direction only on M1 module.
Answer: ABE

NEW QUESTION 20 Refer to the exhibit. During troubleshooting of vPCs, it is observed that virtual port channel 2 is in the down state. Based on the show command output, what is a possible cause of this issue?

A.The virtual port channel is down because LACP is not enabled on the remote switch.
B.The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN mismatch.
C.The virtual port channel is down because of an MTU mismatch.
D.The virtual port channel is down because of a VLAN and MTU mismatch.
Answer: C

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