2016NEW Cisco.CCIE.(400-101)EXAM] CCIE Routing and Switching EXAM A PART12 (261-280) VCE DUMPS FOR FREE DOWNLOAD WITH 100%PASS ENSURE

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QUESTION 261

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?

A. R2 is directly connected to the receiver for this group and is the winner of an assert mechanism.

B. R2 is directly connected to the receiver for this group, and it forwards the traffic onto Ethernet3/0, but it is forwarding duplicate traffic onto Ethernet3/0.

C. R2 has the A flag (Accept flag) set on Ethernet 3/0. This is fine, since the group is in BIDIR PIM mode.

D. R2 is directly connected to the receiver for this group and is the loser of an assert mechanism.

E. The A flag is set until the SPT threshold is reached for this multicast group.

Correct Answer: A

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Explanation:

show ip mroute Field Descriptions

Reference.

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_2/ipmulti/command/reference/fiprmc_r/1rfmult3.html

QUESTION 262

Which three statements about IS-IS are true? (Choose three.)

A. IS-IS is not encapsulated in IP.

B. IS-IS is directly encapsulated in the data link layer.

C. 0XFEFE is used in the Layer 2 header to identify the Layer 3 protocol.

D. IS-IS uses protocol ID 93.

E. IS-IS can be used to route the IPX protocol.

F. IS-IS is an IETF standard.

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

IS-IS is an Interior Gateway Protocol (IGP) for routing OSI. IS-IS packets are not encapsulated in CLNS or IP but are encapsulated directly in the data-link layer.

The IS-IS protocol family is OSI, and values such as 0xFE and 0xFEFE are used by the data-link protocol to identify the Layer 3 protocol as OSI.

Reference.http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_white_paper09186a00800a3e6f.shtml

QUESTION 263

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement is true?

A. The command ip multicast rpf multitopology is missing from the configuration.

B. Multitopology routing for multicast has been enabled for IS-IS.

C. This output is invalid.

D. The command mpls traffic-eng multicast-intact is configured on this router.

Correct Answer: B

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

The following is sample output from the show ip rpf command in a Multi-Topology Routing (MTR) routing environment. In Cisco IOS releases that support MTR,

the “RPF topology” field was introduced to indicate which RIB topology is being used for the RPF lookup. For the “RPF topology” field in this example, the first

topology listed (ipv4 multicast base) indicates where the nexthop of the RPF lookup is being conducted and the second topology listed (ipv4 unicast data) indicates

where the route originated from.

Router# show ip rpf 10.30.30.32

RPF information for ? (10.30.30.32)

RPF interfacE. Ethernet1/0

RPF neighbor: ? (10.1.1.32)

RPF route/mask: 10.30.30.32/32

RPF typE. unicast (ospf 100)Doing distance-preferred lookups across tables

RPF topology: ipv4 multicast base, originated from ipv4 unicast data

The table below describes the fields shown in the displays.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipmulti/command/imc-xe-3se-5700- cr-book/imc-xe-3se-3850-cr-book_chapter_010.html

QUESTION 264

As a best practice, when a router is configured as an EIGRP Stub, which routes should be received from its distribution neighbor?

A. the default route

B. static routes

C. internal routes onlyD. internal and external routes

Correct Answer: A

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Stub routing is commonly used in a hub and spoke network topology. In a hub and spoke network, one or more end (stub) networks are connected to a remote

router (the spoke) that is connected to one or more distribution routers (the hub). The remote router is adjacent only to one or more distribution routers. The only

route for IP traffic to follow into the remote router is through a distribution router. This type of configuration is commonly used in WAN topologies where the

distribution router is directly connected to a WAN. The distribution router can be connected to many more remote routers. Often, the distribution router will be

connected to 100 or more remote routers. In a hub and spoke topology, the remote router must forward all nonlocal traffic to a distribution router, so it becomes

unnecessary for the remote router to hold a complete routing table. Generally, the distribution router need not send anything more than a default route to the

remote router.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios/12_0s/feature/guide/eigrpstb.html

QUESTION 265

Which BGP feature allows BGP routing tables to be refreshed without impacting established BGP sessions?

A. BGP synchronization

B. soft reconfiguration

C. confederations

D. hard reset

Correct Answer: B

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Clearing a BGP session using a hard reset invalidates the cache and results in a negative impact on the operation of networks as the information in the cache

becomes unavailable.

Soft reset is recommended because it allows routing tables to be reconfigured and activated without clearing the BGP session. Soft reset is done on a perneighbor

basis.

Reference.

http://www.cisco.com/en/US/products/ps6599/products_data_sheet09186a0080087b3a.htmlQUESTION 266

Which two options describe two functions of a neighbor solicitation message? (Choose two.)

A. It requests the link-layer address of the target.

B. It provides its own link-layer address to the target.

C. It requests the site-local address of the target.

D. It provides its own site-local address to the target.

E. It requests the admin-local address of the target.

F. It provides its own admin-local address to the target.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Neighbor solicitation messages are sent on the local link when a node wants to determine the link- layer address of another node on the same local link (see the

figure below). When a node wants to determine the link-layer address of another node, the source address in a neighbor solicitation message is the IPv6 address

of the node sending the neighbor solicitation message. The destination address in the neighbor solicitation message is the solicited-node multicast address that

corresponds to the IPv6 address of the destination node. The neighbor solicitation message also includes the link-layer address of the source node.

Figure 1. IPv6 Neighbor Discovery: Neighbor Solicitation Message

After receiving the neighbor solicitation message, the destination node replies by sending a neighbor advertisement message, which has a value of 136 in the

Type field of the ICMP packet header, on the local link. The source address in the neighbor advertisement message is the IPv6 address of the node (more

specifically, the IPv6 address of the node interface) sending the neighbor advertisement message. The destination address in the neighbor advertisement

message is the IPv6 address of the node that sent the neighbor solicitation message. The data portion of the neighbor advertisement message includes the linklayer

address of the node sending the neighbor advertisement message.

After the source node receives the neighbor advertisement, the source node and destination node can communicate.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/ipv6_basic/configuration/xe-3s/ip6b- xe-3s-book/ip6-neighb-disc-xe.html

QUESTION 267

Which three options are three of the default EIGRP administrative distances? (Choose three.)

A. Internal, 90

B. External, 170

C. Summary, 5

D. Outside Local, 100

E. Inside Local, 180

F. Inside Global, 1

Correct Answer: ABC

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

The following table lists the default administrative distances for various routing protocols used on Cisco routers.

Reference. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Administrative_distance

QUESTION 268

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this route table are true? (Choose two.)

A. The BGP routes are internal.

B. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag retain the same metric as they leave the router.

C. The OSPF routes with the IA flag have their administrative distances incremented as they leave the router.

D. The BGP routes are external.

E. The OSPF routes with the E2 flag have their metrics incremented as they leave the router.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

IBGP routes have an Administrative distance of 200, while EBGP have an AD of 20. Here we see that the BGP routes have an AD value of 200.

With OSPF, external routes fall under two categories, external type 1 and external type 2. The difference between the two is in the way the cost (metric) of the

route is being calculated. The cost of a type 2 route is always the external cost, irrespective of the interior cost to reach that route. A type 1 cost is the addition of

the external cost and the internal cost used to reach that route. The metric for E2 routes do not change when advertising to other routers.

QUESTION 269

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about this configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A. It allows 172.16.0.0/16 to be distributed into EIGRP.

B. It allows a default route to be distributed into EIGRP.

C. It allows 172.16.0.0/16 and larger subnets to be distributed into EIGRP.

D. It prevents 172.16.0.0/16 from being distributed into EIGRP.

E. It prevents a default route from being distributed into EIGRP.

F. It creates summary routes and injects them into EIGRP.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

In this example, the prefix list is configured to only allow the two specific routes of 172.16.0.0/16 and the default route. Any other routes will be filtered.

QUESTION 270

Refer to the exhibit.

R1 is able to reach only some of the subnets that R2 is advertising. Which two configuration changes can you make to ensure that R1 can reach all routes from

R2? (Choose two.)

A. Add an additional permit statement to the LOOPBACKS route map.

B. Modify the LOOPBACKS access list to include all loopback subnets.

C. Add an additional statement in the LOOPBACKS route map to match both Level 1 and Level 2 circuits.

D. Add an additional statement in the LOOPBACKS route map to match the R1 CLNS address.

E. Configure the interfaces between R1 and R2 with a Level 1 IS-IS circuit.

F. Configure the interfaces between R1 and R2 with a Level 2 IS-IS circuit.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

In this example, the access list is using a 0.0.3.255 wildcard mask, so only the loopback IP’s of 172.16.0.0 172.16.3.255 will be included. We need to add another

statement to allow loopback 4 to be advertised, or modify the wildcard mask to include them all.

QUESTION 271

Refer to the exhibit.

R1, R2, and R3 have full network connectivity to each other, but R2 prefers the path through R3 to reach network 172.17.1.0/24. Which two actions can you take

so that R2 prefers the path through R1 to reach 172.17.1.0/24? (Choose two.)

A. Set the reference bandwidth to 10000 on R1, R2, and R3.

B. Configure the cost on the link between R1 and R3 to be greater than 100 Mbps.

C. Set the reference bandwidth on R2 only.

D. Configure a manual bandwidth statement with a value of 1 Gbps on the link between R1 and R3.

E. Modify the cost on the link between R1 and R2 to be greater than 10 Gbps.

F. Configure a manual bandwidth statement with a value of 100 Mbps on the link between R1 and R2.

Correct Answer: ABSection: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

By default, the reference bandwidth used in Cisco routers is 100Mbps, so FastEthernet and above will have a cost of 1, so a gigabit interface and 10GE interface

will be equal with a fastethernet. This is not ideal. If we change the reference bandwidth to 100000 then the faster links will be used. Changing the reference

bandwidth needs to be done on all routers in the OSPF network.

Increasing the cost on the R1-R3 link will also cause the traffic to take the more direct route.

QUESTION 272

What are two advantages to using Asynchronous mode instead of Demand mode for BFD? (Choose two.)

A. Asynchronous mode requires half as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.

B. Asynchronous mode can be used in place of the echo function.

C. Asynchronous mode supports a larger number of BFD sessions.

D. Asynchronous mode requires one fourth as many packets as Demand mode for failure detection.

E. Asynchronous mode’s round-trip jitter is less than that of Demand mode.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Pure Asynchronous mode is advantageous in that it requires half as many packets to achieve a particular Detection Time as does the Echo function. It is also used

when the Echo function cannot be supported for some reason.

Reference. https://tools.ietf.org/html/rfc5880

QUESTION 273

Which action does route poisoning take that serves as a loop-prevention method?

A. It immediately sends routing updates with an unreachable metric to all devices.

B. It immediately sends routing updates with a metric of 255 to all devices.

C. It prohibits a router from advertising back onto the interface from which it was learned.

D. It advertises a route with an unreachable metric back onto the interface from which it was learned.

E. It poisons the route by tagging it uniquely within the network.Correct Answer: A

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

With route poisoning, when a router detects that one of its connected routes has failed, the router will poison the route by assigning an infinite metric to it and

advertising it to neighbors.

QUESTION 274

Which two statements about the ipv6 ospf authentication command are true? (Choose two.)

A. The command is required if you implement the IPsec AH header.

B. The command configures an SPI.

C. The command is required if you implement the IPsec TLV.

D. The command can be used in conjunction with the SPI authentication algorithm.

E. The command must be configured under the OSPFv3 process.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

OSPFv3 requires the use of IPsec to enable authentication. Crypto images are required to use authentication, because only crypto images include the IPsec API

needed for use with OSPFv3.

In OSPFv3, authentication fields have been removed from OSPFv3 packet headers. When OSPFv3 runs on IPv6, OSPFv3 requires the IPv6 authentication

header (AH) or IPv6 ESP header to ensure integrity, authentication, and confidentiality of routing exchanges. IPv6 AH and ESP extension headers can be used to

provide authentication and confidentiality to OSPFv3.

To use the IPsec AH, you must enable the ipv6 ospf authentication command. To use the IPsec ESP header, you must enable the ipv6 ospf encryption

command. The ESP header may be applied alone or in combination with the AH, and when ESP is used, both encryption and authentication are provided. Security

services can be provided between a pair of communicating hosts, between a pair of communicating security gateways, or between a security gateway and a host.

To configure IPsec, you configure a security policy, which is a combination of the security policy index (SPI) and the key (the key is used to create and validate the

hash value). IPsec for OSPFv3 can be configured on an interface or on an OSPFv3 area. For higher security, you should configure a different policy on each

interface configured with IPsec. If you configure IPsec for an OSPFv3 area, the policy is applied to all of the interfaces in that area, except for the interfaces that

have IPsec configured directly. Once IPsec is configured for OSPFv3, IPsec is invisible to you.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/15-sy/iro- 15-sy-book/ip6-route-ospfv3-auth-ipsec.html

QUESTION 275Which two statements about SoO checking in EIGRP OTP deployments are true? (Choose two).

A. During the import process, the SoO value in BGP is checked against the SoO value of the site map.

B. During the reception of an EIGRP update, the SoO value in the EIGRP update is checked against the SoO value of the site map on the ingress interface.

C. At the ingress of the PE/CE link, the SoO in the EIGRP update is checked against the SoO within the PE/CE routing protocol.

D. At the egress of the PE/CE link, the SoO is checked against the SoO within the PE/CE routing protocol.

E. The SoO is checked at the ingress of the backdoor link.

F. The SoO is checked at the egress of the backdoor link.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

· SoO checking:

– During the import process the SoO value in BGP update is checked against the SoO value of the site-map attached to VRF interface. The update is propagated

to CE only if there is no match (this check is done regardless of protocol used on PE/CE link).

– At reception of EIGRP update, the SoO value in the EIGRP update is checked against the SoO value of site-map attached to the incoming interface. This update

is accepted only if there is no match (this check can optionally be done on backdoor router).

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/ip- routing/whitepaper_C11-730404.html

QUESTION 276

Which two OSPF LSA types are flooded within the originating area? (Choose two.)

A. type 1, Router LSA

B. type 2, Network LSA

C. type 3, Network Summary LSA

D. type 4, ASBR Summary LSA

E. type 6, Group Membership LSA

F. type 9, Opaque LSA

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

OSPF relies on several types of Link State Advertisements (LSAs) to communicate link state information between neighbors. A brief review of the most applicable

LSA types:

Type 1 – Represents a router

Type 2 – Represents the pseudonode (designated router) for a multiaccess link

Type 3 – A network link summary (internal route)

Type 4 – Represents an ASBR

Type 5 – A route external to the OSPF domain

Type 7 – Used in stub areas in place of a type 5 LSA

LSA types 1 and 2 are found in all areas, and are never flooded outside of an area. They are only flooded within the area that they originated from.

Reference. http://packetlife.net/blog/2008/jun/24/ospf-area-types/

QUESTION 277

Which statement about the OSPF Loop-Free Alternate feature is true?

A. It is supported on routers that are configured with virtual links.

B. It is supported in VRF OSPF instances.

C. It is supported when a traffic engineering tunnel interface is protected.

D. It is supported when traffic can be redirected to a primary neighbor.

Correct Answer: B

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Restrictions for OSPF IPv4 Remote Loop-Free Alternate IP Fast Reroute

The OSPF IPv4 Remote Loop-Free Alternate IP Fast Reroute feature is not supported on devices that are virtual links headends.

The feature is supported only in global VPN routing and forwarding (VRF) OSPF instances.

The only supported tunneling method is MPLS.

You cannot configure a traffic engineering (TE) tunnel interface as a protected interface. Use the MPLS Traffic Engineering–Fast Reroute Link and Node

Protection feature to protect these tunnels. For more information, see the “MPLS Traffic Engineering–Fast Reroute Link and Node Protection” section in the

Multiprotocol Label Switching Configuration Guide.

You can configure a TE tunnel interface in a repair path, but OSPF will not verify the tunnel’s placement; you must ensure that it is not crossing the physical

interface that it is intended to protect.

Not all routes can have repair paths. Multipath primary routes might have repair paths for all, some, or no primary paths, depending on the network topology,

the connectivity of the computing router, and the attributes required of repair paths.

Devices that can be selected as tunnel termination points must have a /32 address advertised in the area in which remote LFA is enabled. This address will be

used as a tunnel termination IP. If the device does not advertise a /32 address, it may not be used for remote LFA tunnel termination.All devices in the network that can be selected as tunnel termination points must be configured to accept targeted LDP sessions using the mpls ldp discovery

targeted-hello accept command.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/iproute_ospf/configuration/xe-3s/iro- xe-3s-book/iro-ipfrr-lfa.html

QUESTION 278

Refer to the exhibit.

ASN 64523 has a multihomed BGP setup to ISP A and ISP B. Which BGP attribute can you set to allow traffic that originates in ASN 64523 to exit the ASN

through ISP B?

A. origin

B. next-hop

C. weight

D. multi-exit discriminator

Correct Answer: D

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Explanation:

MED is an optional nontransitive attribute. MED is a hint to external neighbors about the preferred path into an autonomous system (AS) that has multiple entry

points. The MED is also known as the external metric of a route. A lower MED value is preferred over a higher value.

Example at reference link below:

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/border-gateway-protocol-bgp/13759- 37.html

QUESTION 279

When deploying redundant route reflectors in BGP, which attribute can you configure on the route reflector to allow routes to be identified as belonging to the

same group?

A. ROUTER_ID

B. CLUSTER_ID

C. ORIGINATOR_ID

D. PEER_GROUP

Correct Answer: B

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Together, a route reflector and its clients form a cluster. When a single route reflector is deployed in a cluster, the cluster is identified by the router ID of the route

reflector.

The bgp cluster-id command is used to assign a cluster ID to a route reflector when the cluster has one or more route reflectors. Multiple route reflectors are

deployed in a cluster to increase redundancy and avoid a single point of failure. When multiple route reflectors are configured in a cluster, the same cluster ID is

assigned to all route reflectors. This allows all route reflectors in the cluster to recognize updates from peers in the same cluster and reduces the number of

updates that need to be stored in BGP routing tables.

Reference. http://ieoc.com/forums/t/5326.aspx

QUESTION 280

Which two options are mandatory components of a multiprotocol BGP VPN-IPv4 address? (Choose two.)

A. a route distinguisher

B. an IPv4 address

C. a route target

D. an MPLS labelE. a system ID

F. an area ID

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Layer 3 Technologies

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

The IP prefix is a member of the IPv4 address family. After the PE device learns the IP prefix, the PE converts it into a VPN-IPv4 prefix by combining it with an 8-

byte route distinguisher (RD). The generated prefix is a member of the VPN-IPv4 address family. It uniquely identifies the customer address, even if the customer

site is using globally nonunique (unregistered private) IP addresses. The route distinguisher used to generate the VPN-IPv4 prefix is specified by a configuration

command associated with the virtual routing and forwarding (VRF) instance on the PE device.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/mp_l3_vpns/configuration/15-mt/mp- l3-vpns-15-mt-book/mp-bgp-mpls-vpn.html

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