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QUESTION 481

Refer to the exhibit.

You discover that only 1.5 Mb/s of web traffic can pass during times of congestion on the given network.

Which two options are possible reasons for this limitation? (Choose two.)

A. The web traffic class has too little bandwidth reservation.

B. Video traffic is using too much bandwidth.

C. The service-policy is on the wrong interface.

D. The service-policy is going in the wrong direction.E. The NAT policy is adding too much overhead.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

In this example, the web traffic will fall into the default class, which is only 15 percent of the 10Mbps Internet connection (1.5Mbps). Meanwhile, video traffic is

allowed 50% of the 10 Mbps.

QUESTION 482

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about this device configuration is true?

A. The NMS needs a specific route configured to enable it to reach the Loopback0 interface of the device.

B. The ifindex of the device could be different when the device is reloaded.

C. The device will allow anyone to poll it via the public community.

D. The device configuration requires the AuthNoPriv security level.

Correct Answer: B

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:Explanation:

One of the most commonly used identifiers in SNMP-based network management applications is the Interface Index (ifIndex) value. IfIndex is a unique identifying

number associated with a physical or logical interface. For most software, the ifIndex is the name of the interface. Although relevant RFCs do not require that the

correspondence between particular ifIndex values and their interfaces be maintained across reboots, applications such as device inventory, billing, and fault

detection depend on this correspondence.

Consider a situation where a simple monitoring software (like MRTG) is polling the interface statistics of the router specific serial interface going to the internet.

As an example, you could have these conditions prior to re-initialization:

The management application continues polling the ifIndex 3, which corresponds now to the ethernet port. Therefore, if the management application is not warned

by a trap, for example, that the router has been rebooted, the statistics polled could be completely wrong.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/ip/simple-network-management-protocol- snmp/28420-ifIndex-Persistence.html

QUESTION 483

Which three steps are necessary to enable SSH? (Choose three.)

A. generating an RSA or DSA cryptographic key

B. configuring the version of SSH

C. configuring a domain name

D. configuring VTY lines for use with SSHE. configuring the port for SSH to listen for connections

F. generating an AES or SHA cryptographic key

Correct Answer: ACD

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Here are the steps:

1. Configure a hostname for the router using these commands.

yourname#configure terminal

Enter configuration commands, one per line. End with CNTL/Z.

yourname (config)#hostname LabRouter

LabRouter(config)#

2. Configure a domain name with the ip domain-name command followed by whatever you would like your domain name to be. I used CiscoLab.com.

LabRouter(config)#ip domain-name CiscoLab.com

3. We generate a certificate that will be used to encrypt the SSH packets using the crypto key generate rsa command.

Take note of the message that is displayed right after we enter this command. “The name for the keys will bE. LabRouter.CiscoLab.com” — it combines the

hostname of the router along with the domain name we configured to get the name of the encryption key generated; this is why it was important for us to, first of

all, configure a hostname then a domain name before we generated the keys.

Notice also that it asks us to choose a size of modulus for the key we’re about to generate. The higher the modulus, the stronger the encryption of the key. For our

example, we’ll use a modulus of 1024.

4. Now that we’ve generated the key, our next step would be to configure our vty lines for SSH access and specify which database we are going to use to provide

authentication to the device. The local database on the router will do just fine for this example.

LabRouter(config)#line vty 0 4LabRouter(config-line)#login local

LabRouter(config-line)#transport input ssh

5. You will need to create an account on the local router’s database to be used for authenticating to the device. This can be accomplished with these commands.

LabRouter(config)#username XXXX privilege 15 secret XXXX

Reference. http://blog.pluralsight.com/configure-secure-shell-ssh-on-cisco-router

QUESTION 484

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the EEM applet configuration are true? (Choose two.)

A. The EEM applet runs before the CLI command is executed.

B. The EEM applet runs after the CLI command is executed.

C. The EEM applet requires a case-insensitive response.

D. The running configuration is displayed only if the letter Y is entered at the CLI.

Correct Answer: AD

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Here we see that the sync knob was enabled so A is correct. However, C is not correct as the nocase argument was not used, so the applet is configured to

display the config only if a capital Y is issued.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/command/eem-cr-book/eem-cr- a2.html

QUESTION 485

Which variable in an EEM applet is set when you use the sync yes option?

A. $_cli_result

B. $_result

C. $_string_result

D. $_exit_status

Correct Answer: D

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

The CLI event detector screens CLI commands for a regular expression match. When a match is found, an event is published. The match logic is performed on

the fully expanded CLI command after the command is successfully parsed and before it is executed. The CLI event detector supports three publish modes:

· Synchronous publishing of CLI events–The CLI command is not executed until the EEM policy exits, and the EEM policy can control whether the command is

executed. The read/write variable, _exit_status, allows you to set the exit status at policy exit for policies triggered from synchronous events. If _exit_status is 0,

the command is skipped, if _exit_status is 1, the command is run.

Asynchronous publishing of CLI events–The CLI event is published, and then the CLI command is executed.

Asynchronous publishing of CLI events with command skipping–The CLI event is published, but the CLI command is not executed.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/eem/command/eem-cr-book/eem-cr- e1.html

QUESTION 486

Which two options are advantages of NetFlow version 9 over NetFlow version 5? (Choose two.)A. NetFlow version 9 adds support for IPv6 headers.

B. NetFlow version 9 adds support for MPLS labels.

C. NetFlow version 9 adds support for the Type of Service field.

D. NetFlow version 9 adds support for ICMP types and codes.

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

NetFlow version 9 includes support for all of these fields that version 5 supports and can optionally include additional information such as Multiprotocol Label

Switching (MPLS) labels and IPv6 addresses and ports.

QUESTION 487

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements about the output are true? (Choose two.)A. It indicates that prefix aggregation cache export is enabled on the device.

B. It was obtained with the show ip cache flow command.

C. It indicates that the device is using NetFlow version 5.

D. It indicates that the flows are being sent to a destination using an RFC1918 address.

Correct Answer: CD

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

C. The fourth line shows that Version 5 is being used.

D. The third line shows that the destination server is 10.5.206.250, which of course is a private, RFC 1918 address.

QUESTION 488

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the lowest drop probability?

A. AF11

B. AF13

C. AF41

D. AF43

Correct Answer: A

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Reference. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiated_servicesQUESTION 489

Which three factors does Cisco PfR use to calculate the best exit path? (Choose three.)

A. quality of service

B. packet size

C. delay

D. loss

E. reachability

F. administrative distance

Correct Answer: CDE

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Cisco PfR selects an egress or ingress WAN path based on parameters that affect application performance, including reachability, delay, cost, jitter, and Mean

Opinion Score (MOS).

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/performance- routing-pfr/product_data_sheet0900aecd806c4ee4.html

QUESTION 490

What is a reason to use DHCPv6 on a network that uses SLAAC?

A. To get a record of the IPs that are used by the clients

B. To push DNS and other information to the clients

C. No reason, because there is no need for DHCPv6 when using SLAAC

D. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateful mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients

E. Because DHCPv6 can be used only in stateless mode with SLAAC to record the IPs of the clients

F. Because DHCPv6 is required to use first-hop security features on the switches

Correct Answer: B

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

SLAAC is by far the easiest way to configure IPv6 addresses, simply because you don’t have to configure any IPv6 address. With SLAAC, a host uses the IPv6Neighbor Discovery Protocol (NDP) to determine its IP address and default routers. Using SLAAC, a host requests and listens for Router Advertisements (RA)

messages, and then taking the prefix that is advertised to form a unique address that can be used on the network. For this to work, the prefix that is advertised

must advertise a prefix length of 64 bits (i.e., /64). But the most significant of Stateless Address Autoconfiguration (SLAAC) is it provided no mechanism for

configuring DNS resolver information.Therefore SLACC can be used along with DHCPv6 (Stateless) to push DNS and other information to the clients.

QUESTION 491

What can PfR passive monitoring mode measure for TCP flows?

A. only delay

B. delay and packet loss

C. delay and reachability

D. delay, packet loss, and throughput

E. delay, packet loss, throughput, and reachability

Correct Answer: E

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Passive monitoring metrics include the following:

· Delay: Cisco PfR measures the average delay of TCP flows for a given prefix or traffic class. Delay is the measurement of the round-trip response time (RTT)

between the transmission of a TCP synchronization message and receipt of the TCP acknowledgement.

· Packet loss: Cisco PfR measures packet loss by tracking TCP sequence numbers for each TCP flow; it tracks the highest TCP sequence number. If it

receives a subsequent packet with a lower sequence number, PfR increments the packet-loss counter. Packet loss is measured in packets per million.

· Reachability: Cisco PfR measures reachability by tracking TCP synchronization messages that have been sent repeatedly without receiving a TCP

acknowledgement.

· Throughput: Cisco PfR measures TCP throughput by measuring the total number of bytes and packets for each interesting traffic class or prefix for a given

interval of time.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/ios-nx-os-software/performance- routing-pfr/product_data_sheet0900aecd806c4ee4.html

QUESTION 492

Refer to the exhibit.

A PE router is configured with a policy map that contains the policer shown. The policy map is configured in the inbound direction of an interface facing a CErouter. If the PE router receives 12Mb/s of traffic with the CoS value set to 7 on a 100-Mb/s interface from the CE router, what value of MPLS EXP is set when this

traffic goes through the policer shown?

A. 0

B. 6

C. 7

D. 8

Correct Answer: B

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Here, the policer is set where the conforming traffic is set to 10 percent of the 100 Mbps interface, so anything more than 10 Mbps will be placed into the

exceeding traffic class, the traffic EXP value will be changed from 7 to 6 per the configuration.

QUESTION 493

DRAG DROP

What is the correct order of the VSS initialization process? Drag the actions on the left to the correct initialization step on the right.

Select and Place:

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 494

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the QoS requirement on the left to the correct QoS technology on the right.

Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

QUESTION 495

In a PfR environment, which two statements best describe the difference between active mode monitoring and fast mode monitoring? (Choose two.)

A. Active mode monitoring can monitor and measure actual traffic via NetFlow data collection.

B. Fast mode monitoring can measure bursty traffic better than active mode.

C. Active mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes for the purpose of obtaining performance characteristics of the current WAN exit link.

D. Fast mode monitoring uses IP SLA probes via all valid exits continuously to quickly determine an alternate exit link.

Correct Answer: CD

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Active Monitoring

PfR uses Cisco IOS IP Service Level Agreements (SLAs) to enable active monitoring. IP SLAs support is enabled by default. IP SLAs support allows PfR to beconfigured to send active probes to target IP addresses to measure the jitter and delay, determining if a prefix is out-of-policy and if the best exit is selected. The

border router collects these performance statistics from the active probe and transmits this information to the master controller.

Fast Failover Monitoring

Fast failover monitoring enables passive and active monitoring and sets the active probes to continuously monitor all the exits (probe-all). Fast failover monitoring

can be used with all types of active probes: Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP) echo, jitter, TCP connection, and UDP echo.

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/pfr/command/pfr-cr-book/pfr-s1.html

QUESTION 496

Refer to the exhibit.

Which two statements are true regarding prefix 10.1.0.0/24? (Choose two.)A. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR rerouted the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because of an OOP event.

B. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via passive NetFlow mode only.

C. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via active, fast, or active throughput IP SLA probe mode only.

D. The prefix is in policy, and Cisco PfR did not reroute the traffic via 10.4.5.3 Et0/1 because the traffic was previously in policy.

E. Cisco PfR is monitoring the prefix via mode monitor, which provides both NetFlow and IP SLA measurements.

Correct Answer: DE

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Reference. http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/ios-xml/ios/pfr/command/pfr-cr-book/pfr- s1.html#wp2707728086

QUESTION 497

In the DiffServ model, which class represents the lowest priority with the highest drop probability?

A. AF11

B. AF13

C. AF41

D. AF43

Correct Answer: B

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Reference. http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Differentiated_services

QUESTION 498Which two hashing algorithms can be used when configuring SNMPv3? (Choose two.)

A. MD5

B. SHA-1

C. Blowfish

D. DES

E. AES

F. SSL

Correct Answer: AB

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Note that SNMPv3 does not send passwords in clear-text and uses hash-based authentication with either MD5 or SHA1 functions (HMAC authentication the

packet conted is hashed along with authentication key to produce the authentication string).

Reference. http://blog.ine.com/2008/07/19/snmpv3-tutorial/

QUESTION 499

Which two statements about the default router settings for SSH connections are true? (Choose two.)

A. The default timeout value for the SSH negotiation phase is 120 seconds.

B. Data is exchanged in clear text by default unless AAA authentication is enabled on the console.

C. The default number of authentication retries is 3.

D. SSH is enabled by default when you configure the username command.

Correct Answer: AC

Section: Infrastructure Services

Explanation

Explanation/Reference:

Explanation:

Reference.

http://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/lan/catalyst3850/software/release/3se/security/confi guration_guide/b_sec_3se_3850_cg/

b_sec_3se_3850_cg_chapter_01000.html

QUESTION 500

Refer to the exhibit.

Which statement about the R1 configuration is true?

A. It supports the service timestamps log uptime command to display time stamps.

B. The logging buffer command was used to increase the default of the buffer.

C. The logging of warning messages is disabled.

D. Log message sequence numbering is disabled.

Correct Answer: D

Section: Infrastructure Services

ExplanationExplanation/Reference:

Explanation:

To disable sequence numbers, use the no service sequence-numbers global configuration command.

This example shows part of a logging display with sequence numbers enableD.

000019: %SYS-5-CONFIG_I: Configured from console by vty2 (10.34.195.36)

In this example we see the absence of sequence numbers on the log messages.

Not A. In this example there are no time stamps or uptimes shown in the logs.

Not B. The default buffer size is 4096 bytes.

Not C. The logging level in this example is informational (level 6), which will display levels 0-6 in the logs. Warnings are level 4.

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